Milosevic's conviction at The Hague does not represent only a judgment concerning the former head of the Yugoslavian state, but also the conviction of all the European "Milosevics", even before their coming into being. Why should Milosevic be delivered to the Hague International Court? Why doesn't his conviction by the Yugoslavian justice department satisfy the international community? Because of the fact that if Slobodan Milosevic were judged only by the Yugoslavian courts, i.e. if Yugoslavia resorted to its sovereignty over this case, the whole system of practical precedents, doubled by the doctrine of the legitimacy of an intervention coming from the international community in a state where human rights are infringed, would collapse. The Yugoslavian wars which took place in the 90's made the Occident face some very serious moral dilemmas, generated by the obvious contradiction between the international right which absolutized the sovereignty of the state and the atrocities committed in Yugoslavia; if they had been ignored by the civilised world, these atrocities would have questioned the existence of a certain system of values and the Occidental cultural and political identity. An aggravating factor is that Serbia is in its essence an European state, i.e. no matter how much it might differ from the other Occidental states, it has the same foundations of civilisation as Germany, Portugal and USA. Since Serbia is an European country, the tragedy of its inhabitants may turn into the tragedy of any European state which doesn't dominate the demons of nationalism. No social phenomenon can be said to be impossible: democracy is not an absolute guarantee of stability and prosperity - it represents an optimum way of organization which does not eliminate the social and political skiddings. On the contrary, it sometimes favors them, offering the demagogues an access to a cer